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Updated AACN CCRN-Adult Questions To Clear CCRN-Adult Exam
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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q900-Q905):
NEW QUESTION # 900
After observing an increase in the occurrence of oral pressure injuries in intubated patients on the unit, the nurse should
- A. report the issue to the respiratory therapy manager.
- B. recommend removal endotracheal tube holders from the unit.
- C. discuss concerns at the next unit based practice meeting.
- D. continue to provide oral care to intubated patients.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When noticing an increase in the occurrence of oral pressure injuries in intubated patients, it is essential to address this issue in a structured and collaborative manner. Discussing concerns at the next unit-based practice meeting allows for a multidisciplinary approach to identify possible causes, review current practices, and implement evidence-based interventions to prevent further occurrences. This approach fosters a culture of continuous improvement and ensures that the issue is addressed comprehensively. References: =
* CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Professional Caring and Ethical Practice.
* American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
* Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN
NEW QUESTION # 901
The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed pancytopenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Thrombocytosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pancytopenia refers to decreased levels of all blood cells. This places the patient at a higher risk of infection due to leukopenia. Hyperkalemia is not directly related to pancytopenia. Thrombocytosis is the opposite of the expected thrombocytopenia. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to blood cell counts
NEW QUESTION # 902
Adrenal insufficiency goes by which of the following names?
- A. Addison disease
- B. Cushing's disease
- C. Pheochromocytoma
- D. Cushing's triad
Answer: A
Explanation:
Adrenal insufficiency also goes by the name Addison disease. Cushing's disease refers to excessive secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex. Cushing's triad refers to a triad of symptoms that are a late indicator of increased intracranial pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a hormone secreting tumor that can affect the adrenal glands and may be related to either Addison disease or Cushing's disease, but is not another name for adrenal insufficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 903
A patient with a history of asthma presents with acute onset of dyspnea, a non-productive cough, and tachypnea. He is very anxious, restless, and tachycardic. Which of the following is a first-line drug for these symptoms?
- A. mast cell stabilizer
- B. beta-agonist
- C. leukotriene inhibitor
- D. anticholinergic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Beta-agonists are the first-line drugs for acute asthma exacerbations because they rapidly reverse bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. They act by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the smooth muscle of the airways, causing relaxation and dilation. Beta-agonists can be administered by inhalation, nebulization, or injection. Examples of beta-agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and terbutaline.
References:
* Management of Acute Asthma Exacerbations | AAFP: This article states that "Quick-relief medicines include: Albuterol (ProAir HFA, Proventil-HFA, Ventolin HFA, others). Levalbuterol (Xopenex, Xopenex HFA)."
* Asthma attack - Diagnosis and treatment - Mayo Clinic: This article states that "If you're in the yellow zone, the plan will tell you how many puffs of your quick-relief medicine to take and how often you can repeat the dose. Young children or people who have difficulty with an inhaler use a device called a nebulizer to inhale the medicine in a mist. Quick-relief medicines include: Albuterol (ProAir HFA, Proventil-HFA, Ventolin HFA, others). Levalbuterol (Xopenex, Xopenex HFA)."
NEW QUESTION # 904
The critical care nurse knows that the V1 electrode should be placed:
- A. at the left midaxillary line at the V4 level
- B. at the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
- C. on the posterior shoulder as close as possible to where the arm joins the torso
- D. below the rib cage or on the hip
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct placement of cardiac monitoring leads is essential to obtaining accurate information from any monitoring lead. Place V1 electrode at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.
V6 should be applied at the left midaxillary line at the V4 level. Below the rib cage or on the hip is where the leg electrodes should be placed, while the arm electrodes should be applied on the posterior shoulder as close as possible to where the arm joins the torso (this keeps the anterior chest clear for defibrillation if needed).
NEW QUESTION # 905
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